Steven Anderson Is

Unfaithful To The Word

See also Steven Anderson's Twisted Eternal Security.

I. Teaches You Can Kill Yourself and Go To Heaven

Like John MacArthur, Billy Graham, John Piper, Hank Hanegraaff, Mark Driscoll, the Catholic church, and so many other ministers of Satan today, Steven Anderson believes you can blow your brains out and go to heaven. This teaching well fits Satan's agenda. He is a murderer (John 8:44), and he wants people lost and sent to hell (e.g. Luke 8:12). What better way to get them dead and in hell than to lie to them about suicide?

Anderson's “damnable” heresy (2 Peter 2:1 KJV) is made clear in his sermon on suicide (4/28/13)1 and his “Basic Soul-winning Demonstration Video” where he says,

So matter if you quit church, even if you did something awful like kill somebody or kill yourself, ok, God will not take away your salvation from you. (8:08f)2

In his sermon on "Eternal Security" he specifically mentions taking a gun and blowing the brains out (youtube.com/watch?v=aE__9xqTNhY, 18:30f).

This is such a hellish lie, especially for those who take heed to it in a time of despair. If they did kill themselves, they would most certainly end up in torment forever (Revelation 21:8). Suicide reveals a heart of unbelief, and the “unbelieving . . . shall have their part in the lake which burneth with fire and brimstone: which is the second death” (Revelation 21:8 KJV).

Suicide is not enduring to the end (Matthew 24:13). It is not abiding in Christ (John 15:1-6). It is not continuing in His goodness (Romans 11:22). It is not holding fast the word (1 Corinthians 15:2). It is definitely being moved away from the hope of the gospel (Colossians 1:21-23). It is not holding fast the confidence and the rejoicing of the hope firm to the end (Hebrews 3:6). It is not holding the beginning of our confidence steadfast to the end (Hebrews 3:14). It is refusing and turning away from Him who speaks from heaven (Hebrews 12:25). And, it is not overcoming the world (1 John 5:4), but rather being overcome by the world and the devil (1 Peter 5:8; 1 John 5:18).

Although Anderson calls suicide a sin, he fails to acknowledge, understand, and warn such an act is proof that the person has no hope and faith in Christ. If there is no hope and faith in Christ, there is no salvation, as it is written,

he that believeth not the Son shall not see life; but the wrath of God abideth on him (John 3:36 KJV).

That verse is in the present tense, “he that believeth not.” It matters not what you have done in the past, whether you have believed on the Son in the past or not (as in Luke 8:13 “for a while believe”). If you “believeth not the Son” you “shall not see life; but the wrath of God abideth on” you!

Anderson rejects John 3:36 and a whole host of other Scriptures. He is “without understanding” (Romans 1:31 KJV) and turns eternal security (e.g. Romans 8:31-39) into something it is not.

Likewise, Anderson

II. Teaches "Christians" Who Do Not Love God Still Go To Heaven

Because of his perverted eternal security, Anderson teaches there is such a thing as a christian, a saved individual, who does not love God. Near the beginning of his sermon “Historic Fundamentalism?”,3 Anderson is speaking in the context of 1 John 4:20 and says,

Is it possible for a person to be saved and not love God? Absolutely, because he says here there could be a christian, if he doesn't love his brother, if he hates his brother, the Bible says he doesn't love God. But he's still a brother. He's still saved. Do you understand what I'm saying?

This same book, 1 John, declares just the opposite of Anderson's words. 1 John 3:10-15 declares,

In this the children of God are manifest, and the children of the devil: whosoever doeth not righteousness is not of God, neither he that loveth not his brother. For this is the message that ye heard from the beginning, that we should love one another. Not as Cain, who was of that wicked one, and slew his brother. And wherefore slew he him? Because his own works were evil, and his brother's righteous. Marvel not, my brethren, if the world hate you. We know that we have passed from death unto life, because we love the brethren. He that loveth not his brother abideth in death. Whosoever hateth his brother is a murderer: and ye know that no murderer hath eternal life abiding in him. (KJV)

Besides verse 10 clearly stating one that doesn't love his brother is a child of the devil, verse 15 couldn't be clearer: He who does not love his brother does not have eternal life.

Whosoever hateth his brother is a murderer: and ye know that no murderer hath eternal life abiding in him. (1 John 3:15 KJV)

Anderson virtually declares this murderer does have eternal life, but Scripture says they don't (as in Revelation 21:8 as well, “murderers”). Via his false teaching Anderson likewise declares certain liars have eternal life as well, since 1 John 4:20 says,

If a man say, I love God, and hateth his brother, he is a liar: for he that loveth not his brother whom he hath seen, how can he love God whom he hath not seen? (KJV)

Anderson declares this liar saved, but Revelation 21:8 says,

all liars, shall have their part in the lake which burneth with fire and brimstone: which is the second death. (KJV)

The very Scripture that declares such a man is lost (because it notes him as a liar, 1 John 4:20), Anderson declares to be saved. And, even though Scripture teaches “all liars” go to hell, Anderson believes some don't. As a liar, Anderson will soon come to experience first hand liars indeed will be tormented forever (2 Peter 2:17).

III. Anderson Calls God A Liar

In his “Basic Soul-winning Demonstration Video”4 Anderson says,

So once you're saved you're always saved. It's eternal life. It's a gift, ok. And as soon as God took it back, He's a liar. (8:29f)

The problem is, God does take it back. In Hebrews 10 we are warned of this very thing.

For if we sin wilfully after that we have received the knowledge of the truth, there remaineth no more sacrifice for sins, but a certain fearful looking for of judgment and fiery indignation, which shall devour the adversaries. He that despised Moses' law died without mercy under two or three witnesses: Of how much sorer punishment, suppose ye, shall he be thought worthy, who hath trodden under foot the Son of God, and hath counted the blood of the covenant, wherewith he was sanctified, an unholy thing, and hath done despite unto the Spirit of grace? For we know him that hath said, Vengeance belongeth unto me, I will recompense, saith the Lord. And again, The Lord shall judge his people. It is a fearful thing to fall into the hands of the living God. (Hebrews 10:26-31)

With the words in verse 26, “there remaineth no more sacrifice for sins,” this is language of eternal doom. The person spoken of here “was sanctified” by “the blood of the covenant.” The only way that happens is via faith in Christ (e.g. John 3:36a; Luke 8:13 “for a while believe” KJV). But, now this person faces the “vengeance” and “fiery indignation” “of the living God.” That equals hell (e.g. Romans 2:6-10; Revelation 21:8; etc.).

Likewise, Paul warned the very same people to whom he penned Romans 8:29-39, the Roman believers, he warned them with these words,

Thou wilt say then, The branches were broken off, that I might be graffed in. Well; because of unbelief they were broken off, and thou standest by faith. Be not highminded, but fear: For if God spared not the natural branches, take heed lest he also spare not thee. Behold therefore the goodness and severity of God: on them which fell, severity; but toward thee, goodness, if thou continue in his goodness: otherwise thou also shalt be cut off. (Romans 11:19-22)

It is “by grace” “through faith” (Ephesians 2:8) by which we are saved, and it is “by grace” “through faith” by which we continue to be saved (Hebrews 7:25; 1 John 1:7). Thus Paul says, “thou standest by faith” (Romans 11:20).

Anderson's false doctrine is based on his unbiblical notion that God can promise something and never change it, but that is simply not Biblical. For example, God clearly told Eli just the opposite.

Wherefore the LORD God of Israel saith, I said indeed that thy house, and the house of thy father, should walk before me for ever: but now the LORD saith, Be it far from me; for them that honour me I will honour, and they that despise me shall be lightly esteemed. (1 Samuel 2:30 KJV)

Just as God made a “forever” promise to Eli and his house, so God has promised a “forever” promise to all who believe in Christ (John 3:16). But just as Eli's promise obviously came with a condition (“them that honour me”), so the promise in Christ comes with the same exact condition (Proverbs 21:21; 22:4; John 5:28-29; Romans 2:6-10; Ephesians 5:5-6; etc.). Anyone who believes they can live a life of dishonor towards God (which = unbelief) and die in such a state and still go to heaven is sorely deceived.

Be not deceived; God is not mocked: for whatsoever a man soweth, that shall he also reap. For he that soweth to his flesh shall of the flesh reap corruption; but he that soweth to the Spirit shall of the Spirit reap life everlasting. (Galatians 6:7-8)

Anderson is deceived and deceiving others, just as 2 Timothy 3:13 declares.

IV. Anderson Declares No Hope For Homosexuals

Anderson's teaching on homosexuals is antichrist (anti-scripture). Contrary to the teaching of the Word, Anderson teaches there is no hope for homosexuals to ever be saved. He believes homosexuals are beyond the scope of God's eternal mercy. On his video entitled, “'Born That Way?' (Pastor Anderson Guest Speaking at ASU . . .),”5 Anderson says,

. . . once people die and go to hell it's too late for them. Well, I'm just saying that the Bible teaches in many places that it can become too late for a person before that point sometimes, if they reject Christ enough. And I would say homosexuals fall into that category. (about 7:07f)

Both in the video and in his paper “The Truth about Homosexuals”6 Anderson uses Romans 1 to argue homosexuals cannot be saved. In the paper he writes,

God has already rejected the sodomites.

Both Romans 1, and this concept in the quote above, are not unique to sodomites. John 3:18 says,

He that believeth on him is not condemned: but he that believeth not is condemned already, because he hath not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God. (KJV)

All unbelievers, sodomites or otherwise, are already condemned. That does not mean they cannot be saved. It simply means they are condemned in their present condition of unbelief, just as John 3:36 says, “the wrath of God abideth on him” that “believeth not.” But, if they repent and believe, they can be saved (John 3:16 “whosoever”; Acts 17:30).

Likewise, Romans 1 is not talking just about homosexuals. The subject matter in Romans 1 begins with these words:

For the wrath of God is revealed from heaven against all ungodliness and unrighteousness of men, who hold the truth in unrighteousness; (KJV Romans 1:18).

This section addresses “all ungodliness and unrighteousness of men,” and it gives the reason for “all” of man's "ungodliness and unrighteousness” and God's subsequent condemnation thereof. The reason given is this: All men know about God but reject Him (Romans 1:18-21). All men are “haters of God” (Romans 1:30). It is not just homosexuals who hate God. Everyone hates God, as it is written,

The LORD looked down from heaven upon the children of men, to see if there were any that did understand, and seek God. They are all gone aside, they are all together become filthy: there is none that doeth good, no, not one. (Psalm 14:2-3)

Romans 1 is focused on “all ungodliness . . . of men.” Romans 1:18-32 addresses all of mankind (see also Romans 3:10-18). The reference to homosexuality in Romans 1:26 is simply one example in which a reprobate mind is manifest, as it is written,

For this cause God gave them up unto vile affections: for even their women did change the natural use into that which is against nature: (KJV Romans 1:26)

The “vile affections” that God gave them up to is not limited to the vile affection of homosexuality. Romans 1:29 says they are “filled with all unrighteousness.” That covers everything evil, all “vile affections,” and that is sadly the condition of every human heart (Jeremiah 17:9), as it is written,

. . . the heart of the sons of men is full of evil, and madness is in their heart while they live, and after that they go to the dead. (Ecclesiastes 9:3b KJV)

Furthermore, the Bible is not unclear. Homosexuals can most certainly be saved. Jesus said,

Verily I say unto you, All sins shall be forgiven unto the sons of men, and blasphemies wherewith soever they shall blaspheme: But he that shall blaspheme against the Holy Ghost hath never forgiveness, but is in danger of eternal damnation: (Mark 3:28-29 KJV)

“All sins shall be forgiven” includes the sin of homosexuality.

Likewise, Jesus said,

And thou, Capernaum, which art exalted unto heaven, shalt be brought down to hell: for if the mighty works, which have been done in thee, had been done in Sodom, it would have remained until this day. (Matthew 11:23 KJV)

In other words, if the miracles done in Capernaum had been done in Sodom, the judgment of God would not have come upon the Sodomites. Sodom “would have remained until this day.” Why? Because, just as in the case of Nineveh (Jonah 3:4-10), the sodomites would have repented. God's judgment would not have come, and the sodomites would have been saved.

In Matthew 11:23 Jesus lets us know what it would have taken for the Sodomites to repent and be saved from God's devastating judgment. But, He obviously chose to not do what it would have taken to save them. Instead, He chose to use them as “an example, suffering the vengeance of eternal fire” (Jude 7 KJV) for “those that after should live ungodly” (2 Peter 2:6 KJV).

Paul wrote in 1 Corinthians 6:9-11:

Know ye not that the unrighteous shall not inherit the kingdom of God? Be not deceived: neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor effeminate, nor abusers of themselves with mankind, Nor thieves, nor covetous, nor drunkards, nor revilers, nor extortioners, shall inherit the kingdom of God. And such were some of you: but ye are washed, but ye are sanctified, but ye are justified in the name of the Lord Jesus, and by the Spirit of our God. (KJV)

Paul says some of the Corinthians were “effeminate” and “abusers of themselves with mankind” but were now saved (“washed” etc.). Both of these terms either describe or include homosexuals.

“Effeminate” is a translation of the Greek word μαλακοὶ (malakoi) which is elsewhere translated “soft” (KJV Matthew 11:8 [2x]; Luke 7:25). That's exactly what many homosexuals are – effeminate, and the effeminacy is a direct result of their homosexuality. Acting like a female is quite typical of sodomites, especially in the physical act of sodomy in which the male plays the role of a woman (so to speak) via anal sex.

“Abusers of themselves with mankind,” also translated, “them that defile themselves with mankind” (1 Timothy 1:10 KJV), is a translation of the Greek word ἀρσενοκοῖται (arsenokoitai) which is a compound word. The first part, ἄρσεν (arsen), means “man” (e.g. Galatians 3:28 KJV) or “male” (e.g. Matthew 19:4 KJV), and the second part, κοίτη (koitê), means “bed” (KJV e.g. Luke 11:7),7 and is used in a sexual context and way (e.g. Hebrews 13:4; Romans 9:10). Thus, with this practice being condemned, it indicates male sexual perversion, as Leviticus 18:22 says,

Thou shalt not lie with mankind, as with womankind: it is abomination. (KJV, see also Leviticus 20:13)

That well describes “them that defile themselves with mankind” and “abusers of themselves with mankind.”

Finally, in Anderson's paper “The Truth About Homosexuals” he writes,

The first Sodomite mentioned in the Bible is Ham. Ham took advantage of his own father Noah while he was drunk. He didn't just see his father's nakedness; the Bible says that Noah knew what his younger son had done unto him. The first example of homosexuality in the Bible involves a person being violated against his will. (under example #1)

Anderson does well here at adding to God's Word (Proverbs 30:5-6). The only thing recorded in Scripture that Ham “had done to him” (Genesis 9:24 KJV) is he “saw the nakedness of his father, and told his two brethren without” (Genesis 9:22 KJV). Anderson adds sodomy to the account and makes more of the text than is really there.

V. Anderson's KJV Only Folly

A. Anderson's Assumptions

Overall, the KJV is a good translation. Although, at times, it is a bit difficult for some to understand being there are words therein that are not in our vernacular.8 Nevertheless, Anderson argues for a KJV only position. In other words, Anderson teaches the KJV is the only English translation that is correct, correct in every last detail.

In Anderson's article entitled, “Correcting the King James Bible,”9 Anderson claims,

Somewhere on the face of the earth today, there must be a book that is 100% without error, the very words of God. God promised repeatedly throughout the Bible to preserve his word forever on the earth. (under “1. Is the King James Bible the Word of God?”)

Anderson then quotes Psalm 12:6-7. Please read those verses. Neither there nor anywhere else in the Bible does God promise Anderson's idea that “there must be a book that is 100% without error.” Indeed, God declares His word perfect and declares He will keep it, but how He will keep it, in regards to a single bound book or not, or regarding translations thereof, He does not say.

Because God will preserve it, that does not equal “Somewhere on the face of the earth today, there must be a book that is 100% without error.” That's an assumption and not what God actually promises. With this concept Anderson adds to God's Word a concept that is not there (Proverbs 30:5-6). There is not a single verse that teaches that concept, and remember, Anderson's context is a literal single bound book (like the KJV) and a particular English translation.

The Bible is a compilation of 66 books. There is not a single verse in the Bible that teaches He promises to have that compilation of books in a single bound book, or even in a single bound book in a particular translation (as the KJV), or even in a single bound book in a particular single language. But, Anderson argues He does (by arguing for the KJV), and Anderson's presumption gets worse.

Immediately after the above quote he assumes,

If man shall not live by bread alone but by every word that proceedeth out of the mouth of God, then surely God has made his every word available to us.

Nowhere does the Bible teach this concept either, that is, that “God has made his every word available to us.” In fact, it exemplifies just the opposite. In Psalm 147 the Psalmist reveals God gave His Word only to the Israelites and no other nation. For the majority of “us” (mankind) He did not give it, as it is written,

He sheweth his word unto Jacob, his statutes and his judgments unto Israel. He hath not dealt so with any nation: and as for his judgments, they have not known them. Praise ye the LORD (Psalm 147:19-20 KJV).

Out of all the nations of the earth, God exclusively gave His word to the Israelites and no other. The Psalmist even notes, “they have not known them.” In other words, they not only were not given His written Word, they also were kept ignorant of it.

Paul wrote,

What advantage then hath the Jew? or what profit is there of circumcision? Much every way: chiefly, because that unto them were committed the oracles of God. (Romans 3:1-2 KJV)

The Jews were given His written word, but no such promise is given to Gentiles. In fact, Paul even wrote about “the Gentiles, which have not the law” (Romans 2:14). Where is this promise that “surely God has made his every word available to us” Gentiles? That is a fabrication of Steven Anderson, or a regurgitation of some other liar. It certainly isn't the teaching of the Word of God.

Are there not entire groups of people now, up to this present hour, who have no written text of Scripture? As it is written,

Where there is no vision, the people perish: but he that keepeth the law, happy is he. (Proverbs 29:18 KJV)

Are there still not “Gentiles, which have not the law”? Anderson, in his article, concedes this point. He writes,

Many people throughout the world are not even privileged to have a part of the Bible or any translation of the Bible, . . . . (under “3. Why Do Preachers Correct the King James Bible?” last paragraph, 3rd sentence)

Did God promise them every written word?

No, but to the contrary, Scripture indicates there are books of His Word we do not have today. Where is “the book of the wars of the LORD” (Numbers 21:14 KJV), or “the book of Jasher” (Joshua 10:13; 2 Samuel 1:18 KJV), or the book where “Samuel told the people the manner of the kingdom, and wrote it in a book, and laid it up before the LORD” (1 Samuel 10:25 KJV), or “the book of the acts of Solomon” (1 Kings 11:41 KJV), or “the book of Nathan the prophet” and “the book of Gad the seer” (1 Chronicles 29:29 KJV), or “the prophecy of Ahijah the Shilonite” and “the visions of Iddo the seer” (“written” 2 Chronicles 9:29; 13:22 KJV), or “the book of Shemaiah the prophet” (2 Chronicles 12:15 KJV), or “the book of Jehu the son of Hanani” (2 Chronicles 20:34; 19:2 KJV), or “the sayings of the seers” (2 Chronicles 33:19 KJV), or “the epistle from Laodicea” (Colossians 4:16 KJV)?

In the very book (Deuteronomy) in which God told the Israelites,

. . . man doth not live by bread only, but by every word that proceedeth out of the mouth of the LORD doth man live. (Deuteronomy 8:3 KJV)

He also told them this:

The secret things belong unto the LORD our God: but those things which are revealed belong unto us and to our children for ever, that we may do all the words of this law. (Deuteronomy 29:29 KJV)

Even the one nation to whom God exclusively gave His written Word, even that nation didn't have everything. “The secret things belong unto the Lord.” Plus, even that nation, when they sinned and God brought His judgment upon Jerusalem, the Word was taken from them, as it is written,

Her gates are sunk into the ground; he hath destroyed and broken her bars: her king and her princes are among the Gentiles: the law is no more; her prophets also find no vision from the LORD. (Lamentations 2:9 KJV, "the law is no more" אֵ֣ין תּוֹרָ֔ה)

Likewise, Amos says,

Behold, the days come, saith the Lord GOD, that I will send a famine in the land, not a famine of bread, nor a thirst for water, but of hearing the words of the LORD: And they shall wander from sea to sea, and from the north even to the east, they shall run to and fro to seek the word of the LORD, and shall not find it. (Amos 8:11-12 KJV)

Moreover, God may choose to reveal and then conceal, as He did with John.

And I saw another mighty angel come down from heaven, clothed with a cloud: and a rainbow was upon his head, and his face was as it were the sun, and his feet as pillars of fire: And he had in his hand a little book open: and he set his right foot upon the sea, and his left foot on the earth, and cried with a loud voice, as when a lion roareth: and when he had cried, seven thunders uttered their voices. And when the seven thunders had uttered their voices, I was about to write: and I heard a voice from heaven saying unto me, Seal up those things which the seven thunders uttered, and write them not. (Revelation 10:1-4 KJV)

John got to hear what they said, but for others the Lord chose to keep it hidden.

So, God has not revealed everything, nor does He promise to, nor does He promise to give all of His written word, nor does He promise to give a written text to any particular Gentile people (English-speaking or otherwise). What we have been given is certainly sufficient (2 Timothy 3:16-17), but to claim, “surely God has made his every word available to us” as Anderson asserts is just not Biblical.

Immediately after the above, Anderson further writes,

But where is God’s word?

The obvious choice is the King James Bible.

Obvious to whom? Obviously, obvious to Anderson, but not so obvious to the reader of the KJV Bible. There's no “King James Bible” or anything like it found between Genesis to Revelation in the KJV itself. There is not even a promise of an English translation found in holy writ, let alone a particular English translation (i.e. the KJV).

Therefore, based on this “obvious” that isn't so Biblically obvious, but rather quite presumptuous, Anderson continues to argue on this sandy ground claiming immediately after the above quote,

God’s word has been available in many forms in the past, of course (i.e. before 1611, etc.), but for our generation God has provided the King James Bible. The King James Bible is not only the best-selling and most translated book in the history of mankind, but is also the Bible that God has used unlike any other in history.

God used Balaam's “dumb ass” as well (2 Peter 2:16 KJV). The Lord uses everything (Romans 11:36), good and evil (Isaiah 45:7), to fulfill His purposes (Psalm 33:11; Romans 8:28). God using something proves nothing in this case. Besides, God has not revealed any such knowledge of “used unlike any other in history,” nor is Anderson thousands of years old as if he could know such a thing (Ecclesiastes 1:11), nor is he capable of having such knowledge (Ecclesiastes 8:17).

Furthermore, the King James being the best-selling, or most translated, or used unlike any other, are not Biblical standards (Matthew 7:2) for assuming it is a particularly God-sanctioned translation. Pilgrim's Progress and the Quran have similar traits, but neither of them are godly. Plus, “best-selling” and “most translated,” if anything, might be an argument against it, since the world hates the Word (John 15:18-19).

Nonetheless, Anderson continues (2 paragraphs later),

In the 17th and 18th centuries, the nation God was using the most was the nation of England. Over time, the United States of America picked up the torch of the gospel and has been used by God unlike any other nation.

These nations have been used by God to spread false Christianity (see our article entitled “You Think You're Saved, But You're Not!”). The gospel that has been preached and is preached in America is false. The Christianity that has prevailed in England and America “abideth not in the doctrine of Christ,” and therefore, “hath not God” (2 John 9 KJV). It is in accord with the working of Satan who "deceiveth the whole world" (Revelation 12:9 KJV). But, since Anderson himself preaches a false gospel (as illustrated above), then it is not surprising for him to be undiscerning and have this Satanic historical view.

In this same paragraph Anderson states,

English has also become the universal second language of the world. In God’s foresight, he supplied the English-speaking people with a perfect preservation of his word, the King James Bible.

This claim is not based on any Biblical text telling us this concept that God “supplied the English-speaking people with a perfect preservation of his word, the King James Bible.” But rather, it is based on Anderson's (and others) “teaching for doctrines the commandments of men” (Matthew 15:9 KJV).

Finally, in the next paragraph Anderson asks a very pertinent question.

If the King James Bible is not God’s word, then where is God’s word?

The pertinent part, for this discussion (because there is no claim here of “the KJV is not God's word”), is the latter part. Where does the KJV answer this question: “where is God's word?” Anderson does not answer that, not from the KJV.

B. Where Is God's Word?

Does the Bible answer this question? Yes, as already noted, “unto them were committed the oracles of God” (Romans 3:1-2 KJV; Psalm 147:19-20). God gave the Hebrews His written Word. Thus, it is to no surprise we find His Word written in Hebrew. And, within the Hebrew texts there are also parts in Aramaic (KJV “Syriack” Daniel 2:4, Hebrew אֲרָמִ֑ית ['arâmiyt]). The Aramaic parts are found in Genesis 31:47; Ezra 4:8 - 6:18; 7:12-26; Jeremiah 10:11; and Daniel 2:4 – 7:28.

Moreover, in Matthew 5:18 Jesus marked the Greek texts as also part of the written Word. In Matthew 5:18 Jesus said,

For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled. (KJV).

The “law” in Scripture is used for both the law of Moses (Matthew 7:12; Luke 24:44) and a more general term meaning Scripture (e.g. John 10:34/Psalm 82:6; 1 Corinthians 14:21/Isaiah 28:11-12; Psalm 19:7; 78:1; Isaiah 1:10).

Thus, in Matthew 5:18 Jesus notes the smallest details will not be lost, and the details given in Matthew 5:18 are first a “jot.” “Jot” is a translation of the Greek word ἰῶτα (iôta). This word, ἰῶτα (iôta), is found only here in the Greek NT. Iῶτα (iôta) is the 9th letter in the Greek alphabet equivalent to the 9th letter in the English alphabet, “i.”

The second detail Jesus mentions is a “tittle.” A “tittle” is a translation of the Greek word κεραία (keraia). Kεραία (keraia) is found also only in Luke 16:17 (KJV “tittle”). Kεραία (keraia) is apparently a reference to a part of a letter. In the Greek OT (LXX) the Greek word for “horn” is similar to this. It is κέρας (keras, e.g. 1 Samuel 2:1).

It can be seen from the Greek text in Matthew 5:18 that Jesus promises to keep the Scriptures intact. With His particular wording it can be seen the Greek is specifically noted, as Jesus said, “one iota or one tittle shall by no means pass away” (a more literal translation). Jesus brings it down to the very last letter of the Greek, the last iota (ἰῶτα). But, Anderson argues against this as well.

In his article, “Correcting the King James Bible,” he claims the Greek and Hebrew texts have not been preserved, but the KJV English has. Anderson writes,

“For we know in part, and we prophesy in part. But when that which is perfect is come, then that which is in part shall be done away.” – I Corinthians 13:9, 10. This verse was written by the apostle Paul, who only had a partial Bible (the Old Testament). The word “perfect” in the Bible means complete (see James 1:4 et al). Today we have the complete, perfect King James Bible, . . . .

First, Anderson assumes Paul only had the OT. We don't know what all he had. The Bible never says. Second, where in 1 Corinthians 13 or anywhere else in the Bible is the KJV noted as the “perfect” to which Paul was referring? The KJV itself nowhere teaches any such concept.10

Anderson continues,

and as God promised, that which was in part has been done away (i.e. the original Hebrew and Greek manuscripts used in time past, which were only a part of the Bible respectively).

3. Why Do Preachers Correct the King James Bible?

If God has not preserved the original manuscripts, then why in the world do fundamentalist preachers all over America go back to “the” Greek to correct or augment the King James Bible? They are correcting the perfect Bible with a copy of a copy (the 1633 so-called Textus Receptus). [underlining added]

So, Jesus said not “one iota or one tittle shall by no means pass away” (Matthew 5:18). But, Anderson declares, not only one, but all iotas have passed away, along with every tittle, as he says,

. . . that which was in part has been done away (i.e. the original Hebrew and Greek manuscripts . . . ).

It matters not whether he speaks of the “original manuscripts” (the actual physical manuscript itself) or faithful copies thereof. He exalts the English KJV translation over the Hebrew and Greek texts. Whether it be in its original form on its original piece of paper, or a faithfully preserved copy thereof (in whole or in part), it makes no difference. Jesus said “one iota or one tittle shall by no means pass away.” Anderson, by his exaltation of the KJV English over the Hebrew and Greek, and declaring the Hebrew and Greek to have passed away, denies Christ's words. If the Greek has not been preserved, if “one iota” has passed away, how could Jesus have been speaking the truth? Well, Jesus did speak the truth, and it is Anderson who is the liar.

So, Anderson rejects what Jesus says in the Greek, and fabricates (or regurgitates) doctrine found in neither the Hebrew, Aramaic (Syriack), Greek, or English (KJV) texts. Anderson is truly bad news, and so are all who follow this KJV only doctrine. They get the trust off of God's Word onto good sounding human wisdom. Such a thing damns the soul, because the trust is not in God, but in man (Jeremiah 17:5).

For more on this topic, and specifically in regards to translations of the written Word, please see our article entitled, “The KJV Controversy.” For an overall conclusion, see section “V. Conclusion” (and a section or two before that for context).

Endnotes:

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